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PS AT ™ 8/9 Practice Test # 1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS These answer explanations are for students taking the digital PSAT 8/9 in nondigital format. © 2023 College Board. College Board, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of College Board.

2 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS Reading and Writing Module 1 (33 questions) QUESTION 1 Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the flashes created by fireflies. In this context, “patterns” means distinct and predictable sequences. The text indicates that although the flashes that fireflies produce appear to occur randomly—that is, without any particular sequence or rhythm—each species actually produces its own special series of flashes and pauses. Indeed, these series of flashes are so unique that fireflies can use them to find other members of their species. Therefore, this context supports the idea that fireflies produce flashes in distinct and recognizable patterns. Choice A is incorrect because “quantities” means certain amounts or numbers of something. Although the text discusses how different firefly species produce flashes and pauses in unique sequences that help other members of their species to find them, it doesn’t mention the number of flashes that are used in these sequences. Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “decorations” would mean things that make an object more beautiful. Although it may be reasonable to say that firefly flashes are beautiful, the text focuses on the fact that fireflies use these unique sequences of flashes to find other members of their own species, not that the flashes make fireflies more beautiful. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, “agreements” would refer to deals that individuals have discussed and come to a consensus about. Since fireflies aren’t capable of making such agreements, it wouldn’t make sense to use this word to refer to the signals they send each other with their flashes. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

3 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 2 Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Helen Liu Fong’s architectural designs. In this context, “traditional” means conventional. The text states that rather than use “standard shapes and colors,” Fong pursued “innovative” and “daring” design choices in her work. Fong’s style is depicted as inventive, so it therefore makes sense in this context that she avoided mainstream, traditional designs in her buildings. Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that Fong’s work is innovative and experimental. Thus, Fong’s design choices could reasonably be considered creative, or original. She likely would have pursued creative designs, not avoided them. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that Fong used “daring” hues in her designs. Thus, Fong likely would have pursued bold, or brave and vivid design choices; she wouldn’t have avoided them. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t address whether Fong’s designs are understandable, or reasonable or expected. The text focuses on certain characteristics of Fong’s designs, not on how people received or understood them. QUESTION 3 Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the cover art of Virginia Woolf’s novels. In this context, “partnership” means collaboration or joint effort. The text states that Woolf’s sister Vanessa Bell was a talented painter and that Bell worked with Woolf to provide the cover art for most of Woolf’s novels. Thus, this context suggests that Woolf and Bell pursued a creative partnership in order to produce several of Woolf’s novels. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that Woolf or Bell were undergoing a “rebellion,” or revolt, against anything in particular. Instead, the text focuses on how they worked together in some aspects of the production of Woolf’s novels. Choice C is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to indicate that Woolf or Bell made a “discovery,” or encountered anything new for the first time as they worked together. The text suggests that Woolf had already written her novels and that Bell then assisted Woolf with the cover art for many of them. Choice D is incorrect because the text implies that Woolf and Bell had a positive relationship. According to the text, the sisters “worked closely” together to produce the cover art for many of Woolf’s novels; the text doesn’t mention whether while working together, Woolf and Bell had a “disagreement,” or conflict. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

4 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 4 Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Olga Tokarczuk’s novel The Books of Jacob . As used in this context, “complexity” means having many complicated parts that when taken as a whole are difficult to follow or explain. The text indicates that The Books of Jacob has a large cast of characters, a complicated and wandering plot (that is, a plot that is difficult to follow), and reverse page numbering. Together, these features make up a novel that’s challenging to read and summarize. This context supports the idea that a brief book review can’t do justice to the novel’s complexity. Choice A is incorrect. Although the word “accuracy,” or being free from error or falsehood, can sometimes be used to describe a novel, the text doesn’t discuss whether Tokarczuk’s novel has this quality. Instead, the text describes the novel as having a large cast of characters, a difficult-to-follow plot, and reverse page numbering. These features suggest complexity, not accuracy. Choice B is incorrect because “inactivity” means being in a state of idleness or doing nothing, neither of which would make sense in this context. The text describes Tokarczuk’s novel, and although it’s possible the novel could portray its characters as inactive, it wouldn’t make sense to describe the novel itself as such. Choice D is incorrect because in this context “restraint” would mean holding back or showing self- control, and the text doesn’t indicate that Tokarczuk’s novel has either of these qualities. In fact, the features of the novel that the text describes, such as a large cast of characters, a complicated and wandering plot, and reverse page numbering, suggest excess and complexity, not restraint. QUESTION 5 Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the contributions of the Sumerian civilization. In this context, “introduced” means brought into practice or use. The text states that the first reference to a seven-day week appears in the Sumerian Epic of Gilgamesh . The text presents this information about the seven-day week as an example of a concept introduced by the Sumerian civilization that persists into present-day civilizations. Choice A is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the Sumerian civilization “transformed,” or changed the nature of, concepts that persist into present-day civilizations. Instead, the text’s presentation of a Sumerian literary work that contains the first description of the seven-day week is an example of the phenomenon described in the first half of the sentence, suggesting that the Sumerians invented many concepts that still persist. Choice C is incorrect because the information that a Sumerian literary work includes the first description of the seven-day week suggests that Sumerian civilization may have originated the seven-day week and other concepts that persist into present-day civilizations, not that it “inherited” the concepts, or received them from an ancestral figure or culture. Choice D is incorrect because the information that Sumerian civilization produced the first description of the seven-day week is presented as an example of the phenomenon described in the first half of the sentence, suggesting that Sumerian civilization originated this and other concepts that still persist, not that the Sumerians “overlooked,” or failed to notice or consider, such concepts. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

5 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 6 Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text, which is to show how Polly reacted to some of Fanny’s other friends. The text describes Polly as being frightened of Fanny’s friends because they seemed “much older and wiser” to her and elaborates that they “talked about things of which” Polly was unfamiliar, uninterested, and shocked. Thus, the main purpose of the text is to describe Polly’s impressions of Fanny’s other friends. Choice B is incorrect because the text does not provide any of the topics Polly discussed with Fanny’s friends, stating only that Polly found the topics unfamiliar, uninteresting, and shocking. Choice C is incorrect because the text says nothing about how Fanny and her other friends first met. Choice D is incorrect because the focus of the text is on Polly’s feelings about Fanny’s other friends, not on the other friends’ feelings about Polly. QUESTION 7 Choice C is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The text presents information about a map drawn by Blackfoot chief Ac Ko Mok Ki in 1801. The underlined sentence states that the map “demonstrates a vast amount of topographic knowledge” and mentions that it features the “specific names of mountains and rivers” and includes the first-known sketch of the Missouri River’s drainage network. These are all characteristics that indicate that the map was executed with remarkable skill. Thus, the underlined sentence identifies some reasons why the map is impressive. Choice A is incorrect. Though the sentence after the underlined sentence in the text mentions that Ac Ko Mok Ki included information about other tribes on his map, the underlined sentence itself does not address this topic. Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the underlined sentence indicates how Ac Ko Mok Ki became interested in mapmaking, only that his mapmaking skills are impressive. Choice D is incorrect because though the underlined sentence describes several features of the map, it does not specifically describe how the map was used. PSAT 8/9A1S:(5(;P/A1AT,21S ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

6 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 8 Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the first sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence introduces what yawn contagion is, explaining that it occurs when an individual yawns in response to the yawn of another individual. The text goes on to describe Elisabetta Palagi and her colleagues’ study of this phenomenon in a wild population of gelada monkeys. According to the text, the study showed that wild primate populations experience yawn contagion and that the behavior occurs most commonly in male monkeys and across social groups. Thus, the function of the first sentence is to define the phenomenon of yawn contagion that is discussed in the text. Choice B is incorrect. Although the first sentence introduces the text’s discussion of yawn contagion, it doesn’t present this behavior, or anything else, as a problem. Choice C is incorrect because the first sentence doesn’t present a claim but instead explains what yawn contagion is. Moreover, the text doesn’t challenge anything; it’s an informative text that describes the findings of a research study about yawning in wild primate populations. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text describes a scientific study, and most scientific studies are guided by a hypothesis, the text doesn’t say what Palagi and her colleagues’ hypothesis was; the text discusses their findings instead. QUESTION 9 Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the main purpose of the text. The narrator describes how Joe responds to being in “the metropolis”: he’s excited and “wild with enthusiasm.” He also envies the young fellows who walk by because, dressed as they are, they look as if they have somewhere special to go. The text contrasts this new place with the place Joe comes from, where apparently there wasn’t as much to do. Thus, the main purpose of the text is to illustrate Joe’s reaction to a new environment. Choice B is incorrect because the text makes no reference to why Joe has moved. The narrator indicates that Joe is enthusiastic about being in a city, but there’s no explanation provided for the move. Choice C is incorrect because the text makes no reference to how Joe thinks about an event. The narrator describes young men passing by in the evening and then recalls places worth going to at home— church and a few people’s houses—but there’s no explicit comparison made nor is a time of day mentioned for these events back home. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t support the idea that Joe feels regret over leaving home. Instead, Joe is described as “wild with enthusiasm” at being in the city. Joe’s home is mentioned, but only to compare it unfavorably with the city. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

7 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 10 Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by stating that María Izquierdo was an important figure in the history of twentieth-century Mexican art, but despite her importance, her work hasn’t received widespread recognition in the United States. According to the text, one reason for this is that Frida Kahlo and Diego Rivera are so famous in the US that they overshadow other important Mexican artists, including Izquierdo. Thus, the main idea of the text is that Izquierdo’s work is less well known in the US than it should be because Kahlo and Rivera draw most of the public’s attention. Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss the appearance of Izquierdo’s paintings in galleries in the US during her lifetime, nor does it suggest that her paintings were displayed more frequently than paintings by Kahlo or Rivera were. Instead, the text focuses on the fact that Izquierdo has been overlooked in the US because of Kahlo’s and Rivera’s greater popularity. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss either the subject matter of Izquierdo’s paintings or the techniques she used, nor does it compare these aspects of her paintings with those of Kahlo’s and Rivera’s paintings. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention how many of Izquierdo’s paintings appear in galleries today, nor does it state that she produced only a small number of paintings. QUESTION 11 Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement about dwarf planets that have exactly one moon. The table lists several dwarf planets in one column and the number of moons that each of those dwarf planets has in another column. The text states that some dwarf planets have exactly one moon and indicates that there are two examples. Only two dwarf planets in the table have exactly one moon: Eris and Makemake. Choice B is incorrect. According to the table, Eris has exactly one moon, but Haumea has two moons. Choice C is incorrect. According to the table, Haumea has two moons, and Pluto has five moons. Thus, they are not examples of dwarf planets with exactly one moon. Choice D is incorrect because while the table indicates that Makemake has exactly one moon, the table shows that Ceres has no moons at all. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

8 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 12 Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the example. According to the graph, fewer than 10,000 sewing machines were sold in the Philippines in both 1903 and 1908, but nearly 30,000 were sold in 1913 and around 45,000 were sold in 1918. This increase illustrates the statement in the text that demand for Singer sewing machines grew significantly in the early twentieth century in overseas countries other than Russia, Germany, and the United Kingdom. Choice B is incorrect because consistent sales of Singer sewing machines in New Zealand from 1903 to 1918 do not indicate that demand for the product increased but rather that demand remained relatively the same. Choice C is incorrect because it does not accurately describe the data in the graph. Although sales in Australia did increase somewhat between 1903 and 1908, there was very little change between 1908 and 1913, and then sales declined between 1913 and 1918. The data for Australia, then, do not show a steady increase from 1903 to 1918. Choice D is incorrect because declining sales of Singer sewing machines in Turkey from 1913 to 1918 do not point to an increase in demand for the product but rather to a decline in demand. QUESTION 13 Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the claim about the tracks left by two therapods. The table indicates that the set of tracks labeled La Torre 6A has an estimated footprint length of 32.8 centimeters, an average stride length of 5.23 meters, and an estimated mean speed of 6.5–10.3 meters per second. For the set of tracks labeled La Torre 6B, on the other hand, the estimated footprint length is 28.9 centimeters, the average stride length is 5.57 meters, and the estimated mean speed is 8.8–12.4 meters per second. Therefore, the therapod that left the La Torre 6B tracks had a shorter footprint and a longer average stride than the one that left the La Torre 6A tracks. Choice A is incorrect. While it is true that of the two therapods, the one that left the La Torre 6B tracks had a longer average stride, it didn’t have a longer footprint: the table shows that its estimated footprint length is 28.9 centimeters, while La Torre 6A’s estimated footprint length is 32.8 centimeters. Choice B is incorrect because the table shows that of the two therapods, the one that left the La Torre 6B tracks had a footprint length estimated at 28.9 centimeters, which is shorter than the 32.8 centimeters estimated for the other set of tracks. Moreover, the therapod that left the La Torre 6B tracks had a longer average stride, not shorter: 5.57 meters, compared with 5.23 meters for the other set of tracks. Choice D is incorrect. While it is true that of the two therapods, the one that left the La Torre 6B tracks had a shorter footprint, it didn’t have a shorter average stride: the table shows that its average stride length is 5.57 meters, while La Torre 6A’s average stride length is 5.23 meters. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

9 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 14 Choice D is the best answer because this quotation would be the most effective evidence to include in support of the claim that the Corporation for Public Broadcasting and NPR were inspired by the British Broadcasting System (BBC). The quotation states that the goal of the BBC was to support British democracy and that US legislators believed high-quality programming could accomplish the same goal for democracy in the United States. In other words, US legislators looked to the BBC as a model, taking direct inspiration from it when they created the Corporation for Public Broadcasting, which in turn created NPR. Choice A is incorrect because this quotation provides historical information about the BBC, not information about the inspiration for the creation of the Corporation for Public Broadcasting and NPR. This quotation, therefore, is irrelevant to the student’s claim that the BBC inspired the creation of the Corporation for Public Broadcasting, which in turn created NPR. Choice B is incorrect because this quotation contrasts the lack of competition faced by the BBC with the substantial competition faced by NPR, which has no bearing on the student’s claim that the Corporation for Public Broadcasting and NPR were inspired by the BBC. Choice C is incorrect because this quotation focuses on a common belief among US politicians that inspired Congress’s embrace of publicly funded broadcasting. The quotation doesn’t say anything about the BBC and therefore doesn’t support the claim that the BBC inspired Congress to create the Corporation for Public Broadcasting, which in turn created NPR. QUESTION 15 Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses a quotation from “Odalie” to illustrate the claim that Odalie is eager to escape the monotony, or tedious lack of variety, of her everyday life. In the quotation, Odalie describes feeling “shut up” and complains that she has “no companions” except for her “sleepy tante.” Odalie goes on to say that, as a result, her life is “dull” and she is “ready for any new sensation,” meaning she wants a change. This suggests that Odalie wishes to get away from her monotonous everyday life. Choice A is incorrect. Although this quotation includes the word “tiresome,” which means dull, it does so to suggest Odalie’s negative feelings about Mardi Gras, which is a once-a-year celebration, not her feelings about her everyday life. This quotation therefore doesn’t express that Odalie’s everyday life is monotonous or that she wishes to escape. Choice B is incorrect. Although this quotation ends by saying that Odalie lives in seclusion, or isolation, it doesn’t express that Odalie’s everyday life is monotonous or that she wishes to escape. Instead, it describes the pleasant qualities of the house Odalie lives in, saying that it has “quaint windows” and a “green and cool” courtyard that is “made musical” by the sounds of a fountain and pet birds. Choice D is incorrect because this quotation describes the lively sounds of a Mardi Gras celebration that Odalie hears through her window, not the monotony of Odalie’s everyday life or her wish to escape. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

10 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 16 Choice D is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text’s discussion of Attari and her team’s survey results. The text states that the team asked respondents to identify the most effective action people can take to save energy, with the team classifying each action as either an efficiency or a curtailment. According to the text, respondents named curtailments more often than they did efficiencies. The text then offers an example that begins by citing a curtailment, turning off the lights, that was selected by a relatively high percentage of respondents (19.6%). Given that the example is presented in support of the idea that more respondents selected curtailments than efficiencies, the most effective way to complete the example is by citing an efficiency, using efficient light bulbs, that was selected by a relatively low percentage of respondents (only 3.6%). Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately describes data in the table. The data indicate that 6.3% of respondents said the most effective action was to change the thermostat setting, not to use efficient cars or hybrids. Choice B is incorrect because it inaccurately describes data in the table. The data indicate that 2.8% of respondents said the most effective action was to use efficient cars/ hybrids, not to change the thermostat setting. Choice C is incorrect because it mentions a curtailment (using a bike or public transportation) and not an efficiency. The text states that a research team asked respondents to identify the most effective action people can take to save energy, with the team classifying each action as either an efficiency or a curtailment. According to the text, respondents named curtailments more often than they did efficiencies. The text then offers an example that begins by citing a curtailment, turning off the lights, that was selected by a relatively high percentage of respondents (19.6%). Given that the example is presented in support of the idea that more people selected curtailments than efficiencies, the most effective way to complete the example is not by referring to another curtailment but rather by referring to an efficiency that was selected by a relatively low percentage of respondents. QUESTION 17 Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most directly support the scholars’ claim about the board game. The text explains that the remains of a 4,000-year-old board game were found in Oman. The text then states that scholars claim this board game was played mostly by traders. If the other known examples of this board game from the same time period were discovered along routes that seem to have been used primarily by traders, this finding would directly support the scholars’ claim because it suggests that the game was largely played by traders who brought it with them for entertainment as they traveled. Choice A is incorrect because this finding would suggest only that a single trader may have possessed examples of the board game, perhaps for the purpose of trading or selling the game to residents of Oman. For this reason, the finding wouldn’t directly support the scholars’ claim that the majority of the game’s players were traders. Choice B is incorrect because this finding doesn’t mention the board PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

11 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS game at all, referring only to similar games found at other sites, and would therefore provide no direct support for the scholars’ claim about the board game. Choice D is incorrect because this finding doesn’t mention the board game at all, referring only to the remains of other goods found at the site in Oman, and would therefore provide no direct support for the scholars’ claim about the board game. QUESTION 18 Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table to support the underlined claim. The text indicates that Swahili is the first language of up to 15 million people worldwide. The text goes on to claim, in the underlined portion, that even in countries where nearly everyone speaks Swahili, many of the language’s speakers don’t have Swahili as their first language. The table indicates that 61 million people in Tanzania, which amounts to 100 percent of the population, speak Swahili. If 61 million people in Tanzania speak Swahili, but only 15 million people worldwide have Swahili as their first language, that means there are many people in Tanzania who speak Swahili as a language other than their first language. This information about Swahili speakers in Tanzania therefore supports the claim that many Swahili speakers in countries where nearly everyone speaks Swahili speak it as a language other than their first language (such as their second, third, or fourth language). Choice B is incorrect because it doesn’t accurately describe information in the table. According to the table, Tanzania has 61 million Swahili speakers, not at most 15 million Swahili speakers. Additionally, the table indicates that 100 percent of Tanzania’s population speak Swahili, which means that the number of Swahili speakers in the country and the country’s total population should be the same, not that they should differ by such a large amount. Choice C is incorrect because there’s no information in the table or the text that indicates where people who speak Swahili as their first language live. Although Kenya’s total population can be inferred from the table—if Kenya has 55 million Swahili speakers and 100% of Kenya’s population speak Swahili, then Kenya must have a population of 55 million people—nothing suggests that all the people who speak Swahili as their first language live in a single country, let alone that they all live in Kenya. Choice D is incorrect. Although the table does indicate that 100 percent of Kenya’s population and 25 percent of the Democratic Republic of the Congo’s population speak Swahili, this comparison is irrelevant to the claim that Swahili isn’t the first language of many of its speakers even in countries where almost everyone speaks Swahili. On its own, a difference in the proportions of the population who speak Swahili cannot reveal whether those Swahili speakers have Swahili as their first language or a subsequent language. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

12 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 19 Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the future tense verb “will learn,” used in conjunction with the phrase “in a later chapter,” correctly indicates that “you” (the reader) are going to learn about obsidian’s structure at some point in the future. Choice A is incorrect because the past perfect verb “had learned” doesn’t indicate that the subject is going to learn about obsidian’s structure in the future. Choice B is incorrect because the past perfect progressive verb “had been learning” doesn’t indicate that the subject is going to learn about obsidian’s structure in the future. Choice D is incorrect because the present perfect verb “have learned” doesn’t indicate that the subject is going to learn about obsidian’s structure in the future. QUESTION 20 Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent agreement. The singular pronoun “it” agrees in number with the singular antecedent “the Salt Lake Temple.” Choice B is incorrect because the singular pronoun “one” is ambiguous in this context; the resulting sentence leaves unclear whether there is only one Salt Lake temple or multiple. Choice C is incorrect because the plural pronoun “they” doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent “the Salt Lake Temple.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural pronoun “both” doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent “the Salt Lake Temple.” QUESTION 21 Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction “but” to join the first main clause (“Human-made... fibers”) and the second main clause (“the manufacture...water”). Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice B is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

13 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 22 Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a subordinate clause and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the boundary between the subordinate clause (“Because...content”) and the main clause (“scientists...settlements”). Choice A is incorrect. Joining the subordinate clause (“Because...content”) and the clause that follows (“scientists...settlements”) with the conjunction “and” results in an ungrammatical sentence that lacks a main clause. Choice C is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the subordinate clause and the main clause with appropriate punctuation. Choice D is incorrect. Joining the subordinate clause (“Because...content”) and the clause that follows (“scientists...settlements”) with a comma and the conjunction “and” results in an ungrammatical sentence that lacks a main clause. QUESTION 23 Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. In this choice, the present tense verb “fly” is consistent with the other present tense verb ( “journey”) used to describe the butterflies’ yearly migration. Together, these simple present tense verbs correctly indicate that the migration is a current, yearly occurrence. Choice A is incorrect. The simple past tense verb “flew” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verb used to describe the butterflies’ yearly migration. Choice B is incorrect. The past progressive tense verb “were flying” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verb used to describe the butterflies’ yearly migration. Choice C is incorrect. The past perfect tense verb “had flown” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verb used to describe the butterflies’ yearly migration. QUESTION 24 Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The plural verb “were” agrees in number with the plural subject “objects.” Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb “was” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “objects.” Choice B is incorrect because the singular verb “is” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “objects.” Choice C is incorrect because the singular verb “has been” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “objects.” PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

14 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 25 Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb “evokes” agrees in number with the singular subject “Alexander’s use.” Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “are evoking” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Alexander’s use.” Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb “have evoked” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Alexander’s use.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “evoke” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Alexander’s use.” QUESTION 26 Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite present participle verb “looking” is correctly used to form a subordinate clause that describes the intent behind how L’Engle begins her novel. Choice A is incorrect because the finite past tense verb “looked” can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause. Choice B is incorrect because the finite present tense verb “looks” can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause. Choice C is incorrect because the finite present progressive tense verb “is looking” can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause. QUESTION 27 Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“In… Panchali ”) and another (“A quiet…time”). The phrase beginning with “a quiet” modifies the subject of the next sentence, “Ray’s film.” Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

15 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 28 Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between a name and title and between a subject and a verb. No punctuation is needed between the proper noun “Heather Grab” and “entomologist,” the title that describes Grab. Additionally, no punctuation is needed between the sentence’s subject (“Entomologist Heather Grab”) and the main verb (“found”) that indicates what Grab did. Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Setting the entomologist’s name off with commas suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of the sentence, which isn’t the case. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. QUESTION 29 Choice A is the best answer. “In fact” logically signals that the claim in this sentence—Phoenicia being named after the color purple—emphasizes and supports the previous claim that Phoenicians were famous for using purple dye. Choice B is incorrect because “regardless” illogically signals that the claim about Phoenicia’s name contrasts with the previous claim that Phoenicians were famous for using purple dye. Instead, the naming emphasizes and supports this claim. Choice C is incorrect because “lastly” illogically signals that the claim about Phoenicia’s name is the final step in a process or sequence. Instead, the naming emphasizes and supports the previous claim that Phoenicians were famous for using purple dye. Choice D is incorrect because “on the contrary” illogically signals that the claim about Phoenicia’s name directly opposes the previous claim that Phoenicians were famous for using purple dye. Instead, the naming emphasizes and supports this claim. QUESTION 30 Choice D is the best answer. “As a result” logically signals that the thinner, higher walls in this sentence were a result of the invention of flying buttresses in the previous sentence. Choice A is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the thinner, higher walls in this sentence are similar to the invention of flying buttresses in the previous sentence. Instead, the walls were a result of that invention. Choice B is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the thinner, higher walls in this sentence are an example supporting the statement about the invention of flying buttresses in the previous sentence. Instead, the walls were a result of that invention. Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the thinner, higher walls in this sentence occurred despite the invention of flying buttresses in the previous sentence. Instead, the walls were a result of that invention. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

16 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 31 Choice B is the best answer. “Previously” logically signals that the fused fiber theory came before Ramón y Cajal’s discovery. Choice A is incorrect. “However” illogically signals that the fused fiber theory in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence. While this theory does contrast with Ramón y Cajal’s discovery, the previous sentence concludes by stating that his discovery went against prior assumptions about the brain. The fact that the fused fiber theory was one of those earlier assumptions makes “however” an illogical choice. Choice C is incorrect because “as a result” illogically signals that the fused fiber theory in this sentence was a result of the discovery in the previous sentence. Instead, the fused fiber theory came before Ramón y Cajal’s discovery. Choice D is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that the fused fiber theory in this sentence was similar to the discovery in the previous sentence. Instead, the fused fiber theory, which came before Ramón y Cajal’s discovery, was very different from it. QUESTION 32 Choice D is the best answer. The sentence specifies the location of Ctesiphon, noting that it was located near present-day Baghdad, Iraq. Choice A is incorrect because the sentence explains when the Sasanian Empire began and ended; it doesn’t specify the location of Ctesiphon. Choice B is incorrect because the sentence emphasizes that Ctesiphon was the capital of the Sasanian Empire; it doesn’t specify Ctesiphon’s location. Choice C is incorrect because it emphasizes the size of the Sasanian Empire; it doesn’t specify the location of Ctesiphon. QUESTION 33 Choice B is the best answer. The sentence effectively emphasizes a difference between the MexiCali Biennial and traditional biennials, stating that the MexiCali Biennial is unlike traditional biennials because it hosts exhibitions in different venues on an uneven schedule. Choice A is incorrect. The sentence indicates who founded the MexiCali Biennial and the years this biennial has taken place; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between the MexiCali Biennial and traditional biennials. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence clarifies the traditional meaning of biennial with language that could apply to the MexiCali Biennial, it doesn’t mention the MexiCali Biennial by name. Therefore, the sentence doesn’t effectively emphasize a difference between the MexiCali Biennial and traditional biennials. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence notes locations where various biennial exhibitions have been held; it doesn’t emphasize a difference between the MexiCali Biennial and traditional biennials. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

17 PSAT 8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2 Reading and Writing Module 2 (33 questions) QUESTION 1 Choice C is the best answer because as used in the text, “beckoning” most nearly means “inviting,” or attractive. The text portrays a woman who is looking at “trees in their spring beauty.” She compares them to cities, which have their own pleasures even if they do not have the “easy unhuman loveliness” of trees: she thinks of cities as “seductive” and “charming,” both adjectives that signify something that is enticing, or attractive. Therefore, cities that are seductive and charming would also be described as inviting people closer to them. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication in this context that cities are “demanding,” or requiring effort. Choice B is incorrect. Though “signaling,” or communicating something, might be considered a key feature of the act of “beckoning,” in the context here, “beckoning” suggests that cities have attractive qualities that naturally draw people to them. Such attractive qualities are not described by the word “signaling” alone. Therefore, “signaling” is an incorrect answer because it is insufficiently precise. Choice D is incorrect because there is no reason to think in this context that the cities are “shifting,” or changing shape.

18 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 2 Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of physicist Joseph Webster’s research on gravitational waves. In this context “foundational” means the basis on which something else develops. The text indicates that Webster’s experiments in the 1960s and 1970s were earlier than, and “key” to, the work of later scientists in the field; thus, Webster’s work was foundational to the later scientists’ experiments and the eventual detection of a gravitational wave in 2015. Choice B is incorrect because the text does not suggest that Webster’s work was supplementary, or an additional element of an existing, larger project, but rather it was “the basis for” later experiments. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not assert that Webster’s work was repetitive, or involved doing something the same way many times. Rather, the text indicates that Webster’s work formed the basis for later investigations in the field of gravitational wave research. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not state that Webster’s work was ineffective, or failed to produce the desired outcome. Rather, the text strongly implies that Webster’s work was productive and extremely important to later work in the field of gravitational wave research. QUESTION 3 Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Sueño de Familia art exhibition. In this context, “spans” means extends across or covers. The text states that the exhibition explores González’s artistic heritage and features artwork by her great-grandfather, grandmother, mother, and niece. This context conveys the idea that the exhibition spans, or extends across, five generations of González’s family. Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the exhibition “borrows,” or acquires, five generations of González’s family. The text indicates that the exhibition features artwork by family members from five generations, not that the five generations themselves have been acquired for inclusion in the exhibition. Choice C is incorrect because the text indicates that the purpose of the exhibition is to highlight artwork, not to “judge,” or give an opinion on, five generations of the artist’s family. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the exhibition “neglects,” or gives little attention to, five generations of González’s family. On the contrary, the text indicates that the exhibition is dedicated to exploring González’s artistic heritage and therefore designed to bring attention to her family members and their artwork. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

19 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 4 Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, “drew” most nearly means pulled. In the text, the speaker stands at a window, looking out on a landscape at night. The speaker then “drew the shades far down, crept into bed.” That is, the speaker pulled down, or lowered, the shades until they were completely shut before going to sleep. Choice B is incorrect. Although in some contexts, “drew” can refer to draining or removing liquid, especially water, as when someone draws water from a well, in this context it refers to the speaker pulling down window shades for the night. Choice C is incorrect. In some contexts, “drew” can be used to describe how a person or thing inspires, or elicits, a response from someone, as when a performer draws applause from an audience. But in this context it refers to the speaker pulling down window shades for the night. Choice D is incorrect. Although “drew” has several meanings, including sketched, or illustrated with a pen or pencil, in this context it refers to the speaker pulling down window shades for the night. QUESTION 5 Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the helmets found in Denmark. In this context, “justify” means confirm or give reasons for. The text indicates that scholars have long been skeptical about the supposed Viking origin of two helmets found in Denmark. The radiocarbon dating of the helmets conducted by Vandkilde and colleagues demonstrates that the helmets date from the Nordic Bronze Age, making the helmets too old to have belonged to Vikings. This context supports the idea that the scholars’ skepticism is justified. Choice A is incorrect because “anticipate” means expect or come before, neither of which would make sense in context. The text indicates that scholars have long been skeptical of the idea that the helmets belonged to Vikings. Because the skepticism has existed for a long time, Vandkilde and colleagues’ research couldn’t be said to anticipate it. Instead, the radiocarbon dating results justify or confirm the scholar’s skepticism. Choice B is incorrect because “inspect” means examine or review, which wouldn’t make sense in this context. Research findings are inanimate and therefore unable to inspect scholars’ skepticism. The text focuses on the origin of two helmets, which some people believe belonged to Vikings. Vandkilde and colleagues found that the helmets are from the Nordic Bronze Age and therefore much older than the Vikings. This context suggests that the researchers’ findings justify, not inspect, the scholars’ skepticism. Choice C is incorrect because “reveal” means uncover or report, which wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on the origin of two helmets, which some people believe belonged to Vikings. Vandkilde and colleagues tested the helmets and found that they date to the Nordic Bronze Age and therefore are much older than the Vikings. This context suggests that the researchers’ findings confirm or justify the scholars’ skepticism, which was already known so didn’t need to be revealed. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

20 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 6 Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole. The first two sentences introduce the idea that soil and rocks can be moved from one location to another by something other than rivers and streams. The underlined sentence then states that the term used by scientists to refer to this process is “aeolian transport.” The discussion that follows explains what aeolian transport is (the movement of small geological materials over potentially great distances by the wind) and describes an example of a study that found that dust particles had been moved by aeolian transport from Australia to Antarctica. Thus, the underlined portion introduces a scientific term that is used in the discussion that follows. Choice A is incorrect because the underlined portion of the text doesn’t present any remarks from Melisa Diaz, nor does it suggest that Diaz and her team encountered difficulties in their study. Instead, the phrase in quotation marks in the underlined portion simply presents a term that is used by scientists to refer to a specific process discussed in the text. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in either the underlined portion or the text as a whole suggests that the findings of the study presented in the text were surprising or unexpected. In fact, the text suggests that Diaz and her team wanted to see if aeolian transport could explain the appearance of certain geological materials in Antarctica, and their findings did indeed confirm the involvement of aeolian transport. Choice D is incorrect. Although the first sentence of the text mentions soil and rocks, which are two different kinds of geological material, the underlined portion doesn’t refer to these materials, nor does it explain the difference between them. Rather, the underlined portion introduces the scientific term “aeolian transport,” which is used in the discussion that follows. QUESTION 7 Choice B is the best answer because it best states the main purpose of the text. The text begins by briefly stating that San Francisco is known for its murals, then transitions to a discussion of a single collection of murals, which is found on Balmy Alley in the city’s Mission District. The text explains that the murals in this area were originally created in the 1970s, then observes that they have changed over time: as some have faded through the decades, others have been painted in their place. The text ends by emphasizing that these murals are significant because they reflect San Francisco’s artistic spirit and cultural life. Therefore, the text provides an overview of the history and importance of the Balmy Alley murals. Choice A is incorrect. Although it can be inferred from the text that there are murals in other areas of San Francisco besides Balmy Alley, the text doesn’t specifically discuss murals in other areas or compare the murals of Balmy Alley to those in other areas. Choice C is incorrect. By observing that some of the murals of Balmy Alley have been replaced due to fading, the text implies that murals can decay, but it never urges readers to protect this specific collection of murals—or any murals elsewhere in San Francisco, for that matter. Indeed, by describing the ever-changing murals of Balmy Alley as “a living showcase of San Francisco’s artistic spirit,” the text emphasizes the positive aspects of the PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

21 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS fact that the original Balmy Alley murals have faded and been replaced with new murals. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe the rise of mural painting in San Francisco generally or note when this occurred. The only historical development of the 1970s mentioned in the text is the origin of the murals in a specific area of the city: Balmy Alley in the Mission District. QUESTION 8 Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence presents the general claim that industrial activity is not always a threat to wildlife. The underlined portion of the sentence that follows suggests that the silver-studded blue butterfly is an example of wildlife thriving in areas of industrial activity: active limestone quarries. Thus, the function of the underlined portion is to introduce a specific example in support of the general claim in the previous sentence. Choice A is incorrect. Although the first sentence indicates that “industrial activity is often assumed” to harm wildlife, in the case of the silver-studded blue butterfly the text mentions neither an assumption about this species nor any challenge to such an assumption. Choice C is incorrect because the text mentions only one study: the “survey.” Additional studies are not mentioned in the text. Choice D is incorrect because neither the underlined portion nor any other portion of the text provides a definition for any of the terms used in the text’s argument. QUESTION 9 Choice D is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to the researchers’ perspective in Text 1 on the behavior of the magpies without trackers. According to Text 1, Dominique Potvin and colleagues observed magpies without trackers pecking at a tracker on another magpie until the device fell off. The researchers suggested that the birds might have been attempting to help the other bird, with no benefit to themselves. Text 2 generally discusses scenarios in which animals have been observed removing trackers from each other. The text cautions that it shouldn’t be assumed that these animals are helping one another deliberately, since they might simply be pecking at trackers out of curiosity, causing them to fall off eventually. Therefore, the author of Text 2 would most likely respond to Potvin and colleagues’ perspective in Text 1 by saying that the behavior of the magpies without trackers could be adequately explained without suggesting that they were attempting to assist the other magpie. Choice A is incorrect because Text 2 never discusses the novelty, or the newness and unusual quality, of the captive settings in which animals have been observed to remove trackers from other animals, nor does it suggest that such novelty might account for this behavior. Instead, the text suggests that it’s the novelty of the tracking equipment itself that might cause the behavior: interested in the trackers because they’re unusual, animals might paw or peck at them until they fall off. Choice B is incorrect because Text 2 never suggests that when animals remove trackers from other animals, they do so because they wish to obtain the trackers for themselves. Instead, Text 2 argues that animals paw or peck PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

22 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS at trackers because they are merely curious about them. Choice C is incorrect because Text 2 doesn’t argue that when captured animals are observed removing trackers from each other, their behavior should be regarded as selfless only if all of them participate in it. Instead, the text argues that the behavior may not be selfless at all and may instead be attributed to animals’ curiosity about the new and unusual trackers. QUESTION 10 Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The text begins by stating that the Black Pearl orchestra performs classical music, and then goes on to explain that the orchestra offers an iConduct! program. According to the text, this program offers community members the opportunity to learn some basics about conducting and then apply what they learn by conducting the orchestra themselves. Thus, the main idea of the text is that community members can both listen to and participate in a classical music performance. Choice A is incorrect. Although the text states that the Black Pearl orchestra is based in Philadelphia, it doesn’t indicate that most of the music it plays was composed by Philadelphians. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text does state that Johnson founded the Black Pearl orchestra, this is just a detail and not the main focus of the text. Moreover, while the text does say that the orchestra sometimes plays music by Montgomery, it doesn’t assert that the orchestra was founded solely for the purpose of performing Montgomery’s work. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text explains that community members are invited to conduct the Black Pearl orchestra after participating in the iConduct! program, the text doesn’t indicate that Johnson allows community members to do this for the specific purpose of showing how difficult the task is. QUESTION 11 Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. According to the text, thousands of ceramic bowls were found in a recovered Chinese shipwreck. The text goes on to say that Niziolek and her team used a special tool, a portable X-ray fluorescence analyzer, to determine the bowls’ chemical signatures. Comparing these chemical signatures with the chemical signatures of materials they had collected from old Chinese kiln sites, the text says, allowed the researchers to identify which kilns had produced the bowls. In other words, the researchers determined the bowls’ origin. Choice A is incorrect. Although the text indicates that the researchers used technology in the form of a portable X-ray fluorescence analyzer, it doesn’t specifically state that this technology is new. In addition, the text says that Niziolek and her team used the tool to determine the chemical composition of bowls that were found in a Chinese shipwreck, not to locate and recover the shipwreck itself. There’s no indication in the text that a new technology can help researchers locate and recover shipwrecks. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that the researchers collected materials from old kiln sites for chemical comparison with the ceramic bowls, which means that the researchers PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

23 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS must have already known the location of those kiln sites. Rather than identifying the location of the kilns, the researchers determined which kilns in operation 1,000 years ago had likely produced the bowls that were found in the shipwreck. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text says that using a portable X-ray fluorescence analyzer tool enabled Niziolek and her team to analyze artifacts in the form of ceramic bowls without damaging them, the text doesn’t discuss how researchers analyzed artifacts before this tool was invented. Moreover, the point that the bowls were left undamaged isn’t the text’s main idea. Rather, it’s a detail that’s provided to develop the main idea, which is that the researchers used a special tool to determine where the bowls had been produced. QUESTION 12 Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of the text. The narrator describes the view he and his companions have from the balloon: the earth lies beneath “milky vapors,” and the balloon itself looks like another moon. The narrator goes on to explain how the people riding in the balloon are affected by the ride, explaining that they are immersed in the experience: floating along in “delicious inertia,” or inactivity, like “silent, joyous, irresponsible beings.” Thus, the main idea is that the narrator and his companions are completely absorbed in the change in perspective they gain while riding in the balloon. Choice A is incorrect because the narrator never describes himself as feeling isolated from his companions; instead, he characterizes riding in the balloon as an experience he is sharing with them. And although he does imply a sense of isolation, it is isolation from those on the ground, as when he says of himself and his companions, “We are now alone.” Choice C is incorrect because the narrator doesn’t suggest that he or his companions are troubled by the effects of the balloon ride. Instead, he describes himself and his companions as “joyous” and the experience of floating in the balloon as “delicious.” Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that the narrator is surprised by his companions’ response to the balloon ride. In fact, the text indicates that the narrator and his companions are having the same experience: they’re described as “silent” and “motionless,” rather than as having unrestrained enthusiasm. QUESTION 13 Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would weaken the scientists’ hypothesis about icebergs that appear to be green. The text indicates that most icebergs are either mostly white or blue in color but that some icebergs in Antarctica appear to be green. The text goes on to say that the scientists hypothesized that this green color occurs when yellow-tinted dissolved organic carbon in ocean waters mixes with blue ice. A finding that both blue icebergs and green icebergs contain similarly small traces of dissolved organic carbon would suggest that something other than yellow-tinted organic carbon causes some icebergs’ green color, since the blue icebergs that contain yellow- tinted organic carbon remained blue instead of turning green. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

24 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS Choice A is incorrect because, according to the text, the scientists’ hypothesis was that blue icebergs, not white ones, change color when their ice mixes with yellow- tinted dissolved organic carbon. A finding that white ice, because of its air bubbles, doesn’t change color when it’s mixed with dissolved organic carbon would therefore have no bearing on the scientists’ hypothesis. Choice B is incorrect because the text focuses only on Antarctic icebergs that appear to be green. It doesn’t indicate that icebergs in locations other than Antarctica have been found to have a green hue. A finding that dissolved organic carbon has a stronger yellow color in Antarctic waters than in other places would therefore have no bearing on the scientists’ hypothesis that green color in icebergs in Antarctica is caused by yellow-tinted dissolved organic carbon mixing with blue ice. Choice C is incorrect because, according to the text, the scientists’ hypothesis was that blue icebergs turn green when their ice mixes with yellow-tinted dissolved organic carbon in the sea around them. If that’s correct, one would expect blue icebergs and green icebergs to be located at a distance from each other since all blue icebergs in an area where the waters contain yellow-tinted dissolved organic carbon would take on a green hue. A finding that blue icebergs and green icebergs are rarely found near each other would therefore strengthen, not weaken, the researchers’ hypothesis. QUESTION 14 Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Nikki Grimes’s poetry collection One Last Word . The text explains that Grimes used a writing method called the golden shovel to create the poems in her book. According to the text, the method involves basing a new poem on a line from an existing poem. The text then mentions Langston Hughes and Georgia Douglas Johnson as examples of important Black poets whose lines of poetry form the basis of Grimes’s poems. The text goes on to say that this writing method is difficult and that the resulting poems can be awkward, but reviewers have positively reviewed Grimes’s book. If the reviewers of One Last Word specifically note that the work is a “beautiful and powerful tribute to the poets who inspired it,” then they must have appreciated how Grimes used the golden shovel method to pay tribute to other poets. This suggests that Grimes was successful in using the golden shovel method to achieve her goal of honoring Black poets in her book. Choice A is incorrect because the reaction suggests that most reviewers did understand Grimes’s goal for her book. According to the text, the reviewers noted that the poems in her book were a “beautiful and powerful tribute to the poets who inspired it.” Earlier, the text claims that Grimes intended the poems “to honor important Black poets of the past,” so in their praise of her book, the reviewers clearly indicated that they understood Grimes’s goal. Choice C is incorrect. Although it’s likely that Grimes sought to honor Hughes and Johnson in her book of poetry because they’re among her favorite poets, this fact isn’t suggested by the reviewers’ positive reaction to her book. Instead, the reaction suggests that Grimes was successful in her use of the golden shovel method. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss whether other writers were inspired by Grimes to use the golden shovel method in their poetry. The text mentions the poets Hughes and Johnson as examples of poets honored in Grimes’s book and describes reviewers’ positive reception of her book, but it doesn’t detail Grimes’s impact on other writers. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

25 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 15 Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of the Indus River valley civilization. The text establishes that archaeologists haven’t been able to interpret the Indus River valley civilization’s writing system but have nevertheless acquired information about the civilization through historical artifacts. The fact that archaeologists have been able to learn about the Indus River valley civilization’s customs and community organization from historical artifacts suggests that it isn’t necessary to understand an ancient civilization’s language to learn about the civilization. Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t discuss how easy it is to investigate ancient civilizations with or without knowledge of the civilization’s language; rather, it states that even though researchers have not yet deciphered the language of the Indus River valley civilization, they are still able to learn about it through historical artifacts. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t make any claims as to what the focus of archaeological research should be. Rather, the text discusses how archaeologists have been able to learn about an ancient civilization through historical artifacts despite not understanding the civilization’s language. Choice D is incorrect because the text states that the civilization’s language has not yet been interpreted; it makes no mention of a debate about the language. Instead, the text suggests that examination of the historical artifacts has allowed archaeologists to learn about the civilization but has not aided thus far in deciphering its language. QUESTION 16 Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s discussion of Ana Castillo’s 1986 novel The Mixquiahuala Letters . The text states that the novel consists entirely of letters from the narrator to her friend—a format that some students reading the novel in a class found intimidating. According to the text, those students also found the novel’s treatment of gender to be old- fashioned. In response to the students’ concerns, their professor emphasized the novel’s relevance: it’s written in modern-sounding language and addresses issues that still matter. This, in turn, suggests that The Mixquiahuala Letters is more relevant to contemporary audiences than it may initially seem. Choice A is incorrect because the professor’s response to the students only mentions The Mixquiahuala Letters : it doesn’t compare the novel to others from the same period. Choice C is incorrect because nothing in the professor’s response to the students compares The Mixquiahuala Letters to contemporary novels about friendship. Choice D is incorrect because the professor’s response to the students doesn’t address the idea of reading the novel’s letters multiple times and in different orders. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

26 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 17 Choice B is the best answer because it most logically follows from the text’s discussion of André Izidoro, Rajdeep Dasgupta, and colleagues’ computer simulations of our solar system’s development. The text begins by stating that the simulations led the researchers to conclude that the solar system likely formed from three giant dust rings that encircled the Sun. The text explains that the four inner planets, including Earth, formed from the innermost ring and that the remaining planets formed from the middle ring. It then explains that in one simulation, the researchers delayed the formation of the middle ring—that is, they tested to see what would happen if the middle ring had formed later than it actually did. They found that doing so affected the size of the innermost planets, resulting in oversized super-Earths, planets that are much larger than Earth. Since the delayed timing had the effect of changing the size of Earth in the simulation relative to Earth’s real size, it’s reasonable to conclude that the timing of the middle ring’s formation was important in determining Earth’s eventual size. Choice A is incorrect. Although the text explains that when the researchers delayed the formation of the middle ring in one simulation, the size of the innermost planets was affected (which suggests that the middle ring likely formed earlier than it did in this simulation), the text doesn’t indicate that this was an initial simulation—that is, a simulation that was conducted before other simulations. Moreover, the text makes no reference to the specific results of any other simulations; therefore, there is no basis for comparing any conclusions based on the simulation in which the middle ring’s formation was delayed with conclusions based on other simulations. Choice C is incorrect because the text discusses how altering the timing of the formation of the middle ring, not the outermost ring, affected the four innermost planets’ eventual size in the researchers’ simulation; therefore, the simulation offers no basis for a conclusion about how the outermost ring’s formation affected the size of the planets. Choice D is incorrect because there is nothing in the text to suggest that the innermost ring produced all the solar system’s planets. Rather, the text states that the simulations showed that the innermost planets formed from the innermost ring and that the remaining planets formed from the middle ring. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

27 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 18 Choice C is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most logically follows from the text’s discussion of scholars’ understanding of Maya ecology and agricultural marketplaces. The text indicates that scholars used to believe that during the Classic period, the Maya civilization didn’t have agricultural marketplaces. According to the text, scholars held this view because they misunderstood the ecology of areas where the Maya lived. The text points out that people tend to create marketplaces in order to acquire resources they don’t otherwise control. Agricultural marketplaces would have allowed farmers who produced one type of crop to trade that crop for other types of crops that they didn’t produce. The text goes on to say, however, that scholars underestimated the ecological diversity of the Maya areas, meaning that scholars thought that the Maya landscape produced a smaller range of resources than it actually produced. Taken together, then, this information suggests that scholars assumed that marketplaces wouldn’t have allowed Maya people to acquire products different from the products they already produced: that is, if everyone produced the same array of crops, as scholars mistakenly believed, then there wouldn’t have been any need for marketplaces where people could trade those crops. Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t say anything about trade between the Maya and people from outside the regions controlled by the Maya. Although scholars’ mistaken belief that the Maya lands weren’t very ecologically diverse would give those scholars a reason to think that the Maya didn’t have marketplaces, it wouldn’t lead scholars to assume that traders from outside Maya lands were uninterested in acquiring resources produced by the Maya. Even if the Maya actually did produce only a small array of resources throughout their lands, there is no reason to believe from the text that people outside Maya lands also produced these same resources and thus would have no need to trade with the Maya people. Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that scholars underestimated the ecological diversity of the Maya lands, which suggests that they mistakenly believed that the Maya produced a relatively small array of resources throughout their territory, not that the crops the Maya produced varied significantly throughout the Maya lands. Although the scholars might have assumed that a lack of ecological diversity suggests that Maya farming practices were largely the same everywhere, the text does not support that they also assumed there was a lot of variation in the crops that Maya people produced. In fact, the text states that marketplaces emerge when people want to obtain resources they don’t already control. If it were the case that scholars assumed that the crops Maya people produced varied significantly, this would have led them to conclude that Maya people likely established marketplaces so they could trade for resources they didn’t already possess, not that the Maya civilization lacked marketplaces. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that scholars assumed that farmers wouldn’t trade their agricultural products unless they had already met their own needs with those products. Instead, the text says that scholars thought that the Maya lands produced a smaller array of resources than they actually did, which the text suggests led scholars to assume that the Maya didn’t have any need for marketplaces. The scholars’ mistaken belief has no bearing on the issue of whether farmers met their own needs before trading their products. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

28 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 19 Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a verb and a prepositional phrase. No punctuation is needed between the verb “blend” and the prepositional phrase “with Charlie Adams’s delightfully catchy vocal melodies.” The prepositional phrase completes the idea of the sentence, explaining with what Koperqualuk’s guitar riffs blend. Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and the prepositional phrase. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and the prepositional phrase.  Choice C is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the verb and the prepositional phrase. QUESTION 20 Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested here is pronoun- antecedent agreement. The singular pronoun “it” agrees in number with the singular antecedent “object.” Choice A is incorrect. The singular pronoun “this” is used to refer to a specific thing, but here there is no specific object being referred to. Instead, the sentence is referring back to a hypothetical object that Cave might use in a Soundsuit. Choice B is incorrect. The singular pronoun “that” is used to refer to a specific thing, but here there is no specific object being referred to. Instead, the sentence is referring back to a hypothetical object that Cave might use in a Soundsuit. Choice C is incorrect because the plural pronoun “these” doesn’t agree in number with the singular antecedent “object.” QUESTION 21 Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to express tense. Simple present tense verbs can be used to describe actions that tend to occur, including in a hypothetical or future scenario. In this case, the simple present tense verb “produce” indicates what the air exchange systems might be able to do in the future (produce oxygen for astronauts). Choice A is incorrect. The present progressive tense verb “are producing” suggests that the oxygen is currently being produced, not that it might be produced in the future. Choice B is incorrect because the past tense verb “produced” suggests that the oxygen was produced in the past, not that it might be produced in the future. Choice D is incorrect because the present perfect tense verb “have produced” suggests that the oxygen has been produced from a point in the past up to the present, not that it might be produced in the future. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

29 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 22 Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb agreement. The singular verb “was” agrees in number with the singular subject “Farouk El-Baz.” Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “are” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Farouk El-Baz.” Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb “have been” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Farouk El-Baz.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “were” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “Farouk El-Baz.” QUESTION 23 Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “Anna Behrensmeyer” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the modifying phrase “a pioneer… fossils.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes that Anna Behrensmeyer— and not another noun in the sentence—is a pioneer in the field of taphonomy. Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “fossils of thin-shelled organisms” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the “fossils” are a pioneer in the field of taphonomy. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the pronoun “it” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that “it” is a pioneer in the field of taphonomy. Choice D is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “a 2005 analysis” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that “a 2005 analysis” is a pioneer in the field of taphonomy. QUESTION 24 Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between a subject and a verb. No punctuation is needed when the subject of a sentence is immediately followed by a main verb. In this case, the sentence’s subject (“the innovative works of Congolese sculptor and architect Bodys Isek Kingelez”) is followed by the main verb “were featured,” and no punctuation should come between them. Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and the verb. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

30 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 25 Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the boundary between one sentence (“The poem…exclamation”) and another sentence that begins with a supplementary element (“Translated…poem”). The supplementary element “translated as ‘hark!’ or ‘listen!’ in some versions” modifies the subject of the second sentence, “the word” (referring to hwæt). Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice after “exclamation.” A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice B is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in this way to join sentences. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice after “versions.” A comma can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. QUESTION 26 Choice C is the best answer. “Next” logically signals that the egg laying in this sentence is the next step in the sequence of events described in the other sentences. Choice A is incorrect because “by contrast” illogically signals that the egg laying in this sentence contrasts with the nest digging in the previous sentence. Instead, the egg laying follows the nest digging as the next step in the sequence of events. Choice B is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the egg laying in this sentence is similar to the nest digging in the previous sentence. Though the two actions are related, they are not similar. Instead, the egg laying follows the nest digging as the next step in the sequence of events. Choice D is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the egg laying in this sentence is an example of the nest digging in the previous sentence. Instead, the egg laying follows the nest digging as the next step in the sequence of events. QUESTION 27 Choice C is the best answer. “For this reason” logically signals that the behavior described in this sentence is a consequence of the information about seals in the previous sentence. That is, a seal moves its flippers as little as possible during a deep dive because it needs to keep its heart rate low enough that it does not run out of oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because “in the first place” illogically signals that this sentence is the first point in a discussion. Instead, the sentence describes a behavior that is a consequence of the previous information about seals. Choice B is incorrect because “on the other hand” illogically signals that the behavior described in this sentence contrasts with the previous information about seals. Instead, it is a consequence of that information. Choice D is incorrect because “in comparison” illogically signals that the behavior described in this sentence is being compared to the previous information about seals. Instead, it is a consequence of that information. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

31 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 28 Choice C is the best answer. “In addition” logically signals that Naff’s artifact collecting was separate from, and in addition to, her interviewing. Choice A is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the information about Naff’s artifact collecting restates the previous information about her interviewing. Instead, Naff collected artifacts in addition to conducting interviews. Choice B is incorrect because “on the contrary” illogically signals that Naff’s artifact collecting was contrary to her interviewing. Instead, Naff collected artifacts in addition to conducting interviews. Choice D is incorrect because “today” illogically signals that Naff’s artifact collecting is occurring in the present day. Instead, this activity occurred in the past, as indicated by the past tense verb “collected.” QUESTION 29 Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes how harsh the conditions in the tundra can be, noting that the winters are especially harsh and describing the average temperatures as “frigid.” Choice B is incorrect because the sentence explains that some animals can survive harsh tundra winters; it doesn’t emphasize how harsh the conditions can be. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence specifies how many different kinds of plants can live in the tundra; it doesn’t emphasize how harsh the conditions in the tundra can be. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence explains that both plants and animals can survive in the tundra; it doesn’t emphasize how harsh the conditions in the tundra can be. QUESTION 30 Choice D is the best answer. The sentence contrasts Minnesota’s definition of a lake with Wisconsin’s, explaining that Minnesota’s definition (which takes size into account) is more restrictive than Wisconsin’s definition (which doesn’t). Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence notes that Wisconsin’s definition of a lake doesn’t take size into account, it doesn’t contrast Minnesota’s definition with Wisconsin’s. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence states that Wisconsin’s definition of a lake is different from Minnesota’s, but it doesn’t clarify how they differ. In other words, it doesn’t contrast Minnesota’s definition with Wisconsin’s. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence indicates how many lakes Wisconsin has according to Minnesota’s definition of a lake, but it doesn’t clarify how the states’ definitions differ. In other words, it doesn’t contrast Minnesota’s definition with Wisconsin’s. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

32 PSAT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 31 Choice D is the best answer. The sentence makes and supports a generalization about the effect of redesigning a city flag, noting that redesigning a city flag can create a meaningful symbol of civic pride, as was the case when the city of Pocatello redesigned its flag. Choice A is incorrect because the sentence explains that many US cities have redesigned their flags and provides an example; it doesn’t make and support a generalization about the effect of redesigning a city flag. Choice B is incorrect because the sentence provides an example of a city that redesigned its flag; it doesn’t make and support a generalization about the effect of redesigning a city flag. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence emphasizes why the flag of Pocatello was redesigned; it doesn’t make and support a generalization about the effect of redesigning a city flag. QUESTION 32 Choice B is the best answer. The sentence describes the distinctive style of Houser’s sculptures, explaining that the sculptures use abstract, modernist forms to depict Native American figures. Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence indicates that Houser developed a distinctive style for portraying Native American figures, it doesn’t describe this style. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence states that other artists have been influenced by the style of Houser’s sculptures, it doesn’t describe this style. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the name of a sculpture that’s a well-known example of Houser’s style, it doesn’t describe the sculpture’s style. QUESTION 33 Choice A is the best answer. The sentence specifies why historians believe Abele designed most of Duke’s campus buildings, noting that most of the buildings feature architectural styles that Abele had studied. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence explains that historians believe Abele designed most of Duke’s campus buildings, it doesn’t specify why historians hold that belief. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence emphasizes the architectural styles of Duke’s campus buildings; it doesn’t specify why historians believe Abele designed the buildings. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence explains that Abele is believed to have designed most of the buildings on Duke’s campus, it doesn’t specify why historians believe that he designed the buildings. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

33 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS Math Module 1 (27 questions) QUESTION 1 Choice B is correct. It’s given that 1 yard 36 inches = 7KHUHIRUH 612 LQFKHV{LV HTXLYDOHQWWR ( )1 yard 36 inches 612 inches ZKLFKFDQEHUHZULWWHQDV  \DUGV 36 RU 17 \DUGV Choice A is incorrect. This is the number of yards that are equivalent to 2.124 inches. Choice C is incorrect. This is the number of yards that are equivalent to 20, 736 LQFKHV Choice D is incorrect. This is the number of yards that are equivalent to 793,152 LQFKHV QUESTION 2 Choice C is correct. The table gives the results of 200 people who were asked how often they see a movie in a theater. The table shows that 29 people responded “never” and 53 SHRSOHUHVSRQGHGpDOP\ RVWQHYHUq7KHUHIRUH   +  or 82 , people responded either “never” or “almost never.” Choice A is incorrect. This is the difference between the number of people who responded “almost never” and the number of people who responded “never.” Choice B is incorrect. This is the number of people who responded “almost never” but doesn’t include those who responded “never.” Choice D is incorrect. This is the number of people who responded something other than “never” or “almost never,” rather than the number of people who responded either “never” or “almost never.” QUESTION 3 Choice D is correct. The y-intercept of a line graphed in the xy -plane is the point where the line intersects the y-axis. The line graphed intersects the y-axis at the point ( )0, 8 . Therefore, the y-intercept of the line graphed is ( )0, 8  Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 1

34 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 4 Choice A is correct. Subtracting 180 from both sides of the given equation yields 5 70p = . Dividing both sides of this equation by 5 yields 14 p = . Therefore, the value of p that satisfiey V the equation\   5 180 250p += is 14 . Choice B is incorrect. This value of p satisfies they equation 5 180 505p += . Choice C is incorrect. This value of p satisfies they equation 5 180 610p += . Choice D is incorrect. This value of p satisfies they equation 5 180 1, 430p += . QUESTION 5 Choice D is correct. The area A, in square centimeters, of a rectangle can be found using thy H formula Aw =  , where   is the length, in centimeters, of the rectangle and w is its width,\ in centimeters. It’s given that the y Uectangle has y D length of 36 centimeters and a width of 34 centimeters. Substitutiy Qg 36 for  and 34 for w in the formula Aw =  yields ( ) 36 34 A = , or  1,224 A = . Therefore, the area, in square centimeters, of this rectangle is 1,224 . Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice B is incorrect. This is the perimeter, in centimeters, not the area, in square centimeters, of the rectangle. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 6 The correct answer is 17 . It’s given that there are 170 blocks in a container, and of these blocks, 10yb  are green. Since 10yb can be rewritten as 10 100 , or 0.1 , the number of green blocks in the container is ( ) 0.1 170 , or 17 . QUESTION 7 The correct answer is 14 . It’s given that the y Hquation  46 2 2 ab =+ gives the relationship between the side lengths a and b of a certain parallelogram. Substituting 9 for a in the given equation yields ( ) 46 2 9 2 b =+ , or 46 18 2 b =+ . Subtracting 18 from both sides of this equation yields 28 2 b = . Dividing both sides of this equation by 2 yields 14 b = . Therefore, if 9 a =, the value of b is 14 . QUESTION 8 Choice B is correct. It’s given that the graph shows the possible combinations of the number of pounds of tangerines, x, and the nu\ mber of poundy V of lemons, \ y, that could be purchased for $1 8 at a certain store. If Melvin \ purchased lemons and 4 pounds of tangerines for a total of $1 8 , the number of pounds of lemons he purchased is represented by the y-coordinate of the point on the graph where 4 x =. For the graph shown, when 4 x =, 10 y = . Therefore, if Melvin purchased lemons and 4 pounds of tangerines for a total of $1 8 , then he purchased 10  pounds of lemy Rns. Choice A is incorrect. This is the number of pounds of tangerines Melvin purchased if he purchased tangerines and 4 pounds of lemy Rns for a total of $1 8 . Choice C is incorrect. This is the number of pounds of lemons Melvin purchased if PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 1

35 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS he purchased lemons and 2 pounds of tangerines for a total of $1 8 . Choice D is incorrect. This is the number of pounds of lemons Melvin purchased if he purchased lemons and 1 pound of tangerines for a total of $1 8 . QUESTION 9 Choice A is correct. It’s given that the area of a square is 64 square inches. Thy H area A, in square inches, of a square is given by the formula 2 As= , where s is the side length, in inches, of the square. Substituting 64 for A in this formula yields 2 64 s = 7DNLQJWKHSRVLWLYHVTXDUHURRWRIERWKVLGHVRIWKLVHTXDWLRQ\LHOGV  s =  7KXVWKHVLGHOHQJWKLQLQFKHVRIWKLVVTXDUHLV  Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect. This is the area, in square inches, of the square, not the side length, in inches, of the square. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 10 Choice A is correct. It’s given that Connor has cGROODUV0DULDKDV\  m GROODUV and Connor has 4 times as many dollars as Maria. This can be represented by the equation 4 cm = ,WoVDOVRJLYHQWKDWWRJHWKHU&RQQRUDQG0DULDKDYHDWRWDO of $25.00 , which can be represented by the equation 25 cm += 7KHUHIRUH WKHV\VWHPFRQVLVWLQJRIWKHHTXDWLRQV 4 cm = and 25 cm += represents this situation. Choice B is incorrect. The equation 4 mc = UHSUHVHQWVDVLWXDWLRQZKHUH0DULDKDV 4WLPHVDVPDQ\GROODUVDV&RQQRUUDWKHUWKDQWK\ HVLWXDWLRQZK\ HUH&RQQRUKDV\ 4WLPHVDVPDQ\GROODUVDV0DULD\ Choice C is incorrect. The equation 25 cm = represents a situation where Connor has 25 times, rather than 4WLPHVDVPD\ Q\ GROODUVDV0DULD\ 7KHHTXDWLRQ 4 cm += represents a situation where Connor and Maria together have a total of $4.00 UDWKHUWKDQ  Choice D is incorrect. The equation 25 mc = UHSUHVHQWVDVLWXDWLRQZKHUH0DULDKDV 25 WLPHVDVPDQ\ GROODUVDV&RQQRUUDWKHUWKDQWK\ HVLWXDWLRQZK\ HUH&RQQRUKDV\ 4WLPHVDVPDQ\ GROODUVDV0DULD\ 7KHHTXDWLRQ 4 cm += represents a situation where Connor and Maria together have a total of $4.00 UDWKHUWKDQ   QUESTION 11 Choice C is correct. It’s given that in the equation 16 dt = d represents the distance, in inches, and tUHSUHVHQWVWKHQXPE\ HURIVHFRQGVVLQFHDQREMHFW VWDUWHGPRYLQJ,QWKLVHT\ XDWLRQ tLVEHLQJPXOW\ LSOLHGE\ 16 7KLVPHDQV\ WKDW WKHREMHFWoV\ GLVWDQFHLQFUHDVHVE\ 16 LQFKHVHDFKVHFRQG7KHUHIRUHWKH best interpretation of 16 in this context is that the object is moving at a rate of 16 {LQFKHVSHUVHFRQG Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect. This is the best interpretation of 16 t , rather than 16 LQWKLVFRQWH[W Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 1

36 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 12 Choice C is correct. The scatterplot shows that there was an increase in recorded temperature from 2 x = to 3 x = and from 6 x = to 7 x =. When 2 x =, the recorded temperature was approximately o 60 F and when 3 x =, the recorded temperature was greater than o 70 F . This means that the increase in recorded temperature from 2 x = to 3 x = was greater than ( ) o 70 60 F - , or o 10 F . When 6 x =, the recorded temperature was greater than o 60 F and when 7 x =, the recorded temperature was less than o 70 F . This means that the increase in recorded temperature from 6 x = to 7 x = was less than ( ) o 70 60 F - , or o 10 F . It follows that the greatest increase in recorded temperature took place from 2 x = to 3 x =. Choice A is incorrect. The increase in recorded temperature from 6 x = to 7 x = was less than the increase in recorded temperature from 2 x = to 3 x =. Choice B is incorrect. From 5 x = to 6 x =, a decrease, not an increase, in recorded temperature took place. Choice D is incorrect. From 1 x = to 2 x =, a decrease, not an increase, in recorded temperature took place. QUESTION 13 The correct answer is 73, 920 . It’s given that 1 furlong 220 yards = and  1 yard 3 feet= . It follows that a distance of 112 furlongs is ey Tuivalent to ( ) ( ) ( ) 220 yards 3 feet 1 furlong 1 yard 112 furlongs , or 73, 920 feet. QUESTION 14 The correct answer is 39 . It’s given that for the linear function j, m is a constant and  ( )12 18 j = . Substituting 12 for x and 18 for  ( )jx in the given equation yy Lelds ( ) 18 12 144m =+ . Subtracting 144 from both sidesy of this equay Wion yields ( ) 126 12 m -= . Dividing both sides of this equation by 12 yields  10.5 m -= . Substituting  10.5 - for m in the given equation,  ( ) 144 j x mx =+ , yields ( ) 10.5 144 jx x =- + . Substituting 10 for x in this equation yields  ( ) ( )( )10 10.5 10 144 j =- + , or ( )10 39 j = . Therefore, the value of ( )10 j is 39 . QUESTION 15 Choice B is correct. It’s given by the second equation in the system that 19 y = . Substituting 19 for y in the first equation yields 19 4 9 x =- . Adding 9 to both sides of this equation yields 28 4 x = . Dividing both sides of this equation by 4 yields 7 x = . Therefore, since 7 x = and 19 y = , the solution ( ), xy to the given system of equatioy Qs is ( )7, 19 . Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 1

37 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 16 Choice D is correct. The given expression follows the difference of two squares pattern, 22xy- , which factors as ( )( )x yx y-+ . Therefore, the expression 2 256 676 w- can be written as  ( ) 2 2 16 26w - , or ( )( ) ( )( )16 16 26 26ww - , which factors as  ( )( )16 26 16 26ww-+ . Choice A is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 2 256 832 676 ww-+ . Choice B is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 2 64 169w - Choice C is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 2 64 208 169 ww -+  QUESTION 17 Choice C is correct. Each point  ( ), xy RQWKHJUDSKUHSUHVHQWVDQHODSVHGWLPH x LQKRXUVDQGWKHF\ RUUHVSRQGLQJRFHDQZDWHUOHYHO yLQIHHWDWDFHUWDLQORFDWLRQ EDVHGRQWKHPR\ GHO7KHJUDSKVKRZQSDVVHVWKURXJKWKHSRLQ\ WV ( )0, 0 ( )3, 12 -  DQG{ ( )6, 0 7KXVWKHWDEOHLQFKRLFH&JLYHVWKHYDOXHVRI x and their corresponding values of yEDVHGRQWKHPR\ GHO Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 18 Choice A is correct. It’s given that line jLVSHUSHQGLFX\ ODUWROLQH k in the xy-plane. It follows that the slope of line j is the opposite reciprocal of the slope of line k 7KHHTXDWLRQ\ IRUOLQH kLVZULWWHQLQVORSHLQWHUFHSWIRUP y mx b =+ ZKHUH m is the slope of the line and  b is the y-coordinate of the y-intercept of the line. It follows that the slope of line k is 3. The opposite reciprocal of a number is 1 - divided by the number. Thus, the opposite reciprocal of 3 is 1 3- . Therefore, the slope of line j is 1 3- . Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 19 Choice A is correct. It’s given that the store’s sales of a certain Greek yogurt totaled 1,277.94 GROODUVODVWPRQWK,WoVDOVRJLYHQWKDWWKHHTXDWLRQ    xy+= UHSUHVHQWVWKLVVLWXDWLRQZKHUH xLVWKHQXPEHU\ RI VPDOOHUFRQWDLQHUVVROGDQG yLVWKHQXPEHU\ RIODUJHUFRQWDLQHUVVROG6LQFH x represents the number of smaller containers of yogurt sold, the expression 5.48 x represents the total sales, in dollars, from smaller containers of yogurt. This means that xVPDOOHUFRQWDLQHUVRI\RJXUWZHUHVROGDWDSUL\ FHRI  dollars each. Therefore, according to the equation, 5.48 UHSUHVHQWVWKHSULFHLQGROODUV RIHDFKVPDOOHUFRQWDLQHU Choice B is incorrect. This expression represents the total sales, in dollars, from selling y larger containers of yogurt. Choice C is incorrect. This value represents PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 1

38 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS the price, in dollars, of each larger container of yogurt. Choice D is incorrect. This expression represents the total sales, in dollars, from selling x smaller containers of yogurt. QUESTION 20 The correct answer is 2,216 . The surface area of a prism is the sum of the areas of all its faces. A right rectangular prism consists of six rectangular faces, where opposite faces are congruent. It’s given that this prism has a length of 28 cm , a width of 15 cm , and a height of 16 cm . Thus, for this prism, there are two faces with area ( )( ) 2 28 15 cm , two faces with area ( )( ) 2 28 16 cm , and two faces with area ( )( ) 2 15 16 cm . Therefore, the surface area, in  2 cm , of the right rectangular prism is ( )( ) ( )( ) ( )( )2 28 15 2 28 16 2 15 16 ++ , or 2,216 . QUESTION 21 The correct answer is 5. Dividing ey Dch side of ty Ke given equation by 3 yields 2 6 50 xx - -= . Adding 5 to each side y Rf this equati\ on yields 2 65 xx -= . Therefore, if 2 3 18 15 0xx - -= , the value of 2 6 xx - is 5. QUESTION 22 Choice C is correct. Applying the distributive property to the given expression yields  ( ) ( ) 22 83683 dd d -- - . Applying the distributive property once again to this expression yields ( ) ( ) ( )( ) ( ) ( ) ( )( ) 22 8 3 68 6 3 dd d d + - +- +- - , or ( ) ( ) 32 8 3 48 18 dd d +- +- + . This expression can be rewritten as 32 8 48 3 18d dd - -+ . Thus,  ( ) ( ) 2 68 3 dd -- LVHTXLYDOHQWWR 32 8 48 3 18d dd - -+ . Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 23 Choice B is correct. The Pythagorean theorem states that in a right triangle, the sum of the squares of the lengths of the two legs is equal to the square of the length of the hypotenuse. It’s given that the right triangle has legs with lengths of 28 centimeters and 20 FHQWLPHWHUV/HW c represent the length of this triangle’s hypotenuse, in centimeters. Therefore, by the Pythagorean theorem, 2 22 28 20 c += RU 2 1,184 c = 7DNLQJWKHSRVLWLYHVTXDUHURRWRIERWKVLGHVRIWKLV HTXDWLRQ\LHOGV  c = RU 4 74 c = 7KHUHIRUHWKHOHQJWKRIWKLVWULDQJOHoV K\SRWHQXVHLQFHQWLPHWHUVLV 4 74  Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect. This is the square of the length of the triangle’s hypotenuse. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 1

39 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 24 Choice A is correct. The tables in choices B, C, and D each represent a data set where the values 80 and 90 have the same frequency and the values 70 and 100 have the same frequency. It follows that each of these data sets is symmetric around the value halfway between 80 and 90 , or 85 . When a data set is symmetric around a value, that value is the mean of the data set. Therefore, the data sets represented by the tables in choices B, C, and D each have a mean of 85 . The table in choice A represents a data set where the value 90 has a greater frequency than the value 80 and the value 100 has a greater frequency than the value 70 . It follows that this \ data set has a meay Q greater than 85 . Therefore, of the given choices, choice A represents the datay set with the y Jreatest mean. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 25 Choice A is correct. Dividing both sides of the second equation in the given system by 3 yields 87 9xy += , which is the first equation in the given system. Therefore, the first and second equations represent the same line in the xy -plane. If the x- and y-coordinates of a point satisfy an equation, the point lies on the graph of the equation in the xy -plane. Choice A is a point with x-coordinate r and y-coordinate 89 77 r-+ . Substituting r for x and 89 77 r-+ for y in the equation 87 9 xy += yields ( ) 89 77 87 9 rr+- + = . Applying the distributive property to the left-hand side of this equation yields 8 8 99 rr- += . Combining like terms on the left-hand side of this equation yields 99 = , so the coordinates of the point ( ) 89 77 , rr -+ satisfy both equations in the given system. Therefore, for each real number r, the point  ( ) 89 77 , rr -+  lies on the graph of each equation in the xy -plane for the given system. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 26 Choice B is correct. It’s given that a salesperson’s total earnings consist of a base salary of x dollars per year plus commission eary Qings of 11yb of the total sales the salesperson makes during the year. If the salesperson makes s dollars in total sales this year, the salesperson’s total earnings can be represented by the expression 0.11 xs + . It’s also given that the salesperson has a goal for the total earnings to be at least 3 times and at most 4 times the base salary, which can be represented by the expressions 3x and 4 x , respectively. Therefore, this situation can be represented by the inequality 3 0.11 4xx s x £+ £ . Subtracting x from each part of this iny Hquality yields 2 0.11 3x sx ££ . Dividing each part PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 1

40 P S AT   8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS of this inequality by 0.11 yields 230.11 0.11 xs x££ . Therefore, the inequality 230.11 0.11 xs x££ represents all possible values of total sales s, in dollars, the salesperson can make this year in order to meet their \ goal. Choice A is incorrect. This inequality represents a situation in which the total sales, rather than the total earnings, are at least 2 times and at \ most 3 times, rather than at least 3 times and at most 4 times, the by Dse salary. Choice C is incorrect. This inequality represents a situation in which the total sales, rather than the total earnings, are at least 3 times and at \ most 4 times the base salary. Choice D is incorrect. This inequality represents a situation in which the total earnings are at least 4 times and at most 5 times, rather than at least 3 times and at most 4 times, the by Dse salary. QUESTION 27 The correct answer is .48 . It’s given that the number a is 70% less than the positive number b. Therefore,  ( ) 70100 1 ab=- , which is equivalent to  ( ) 1 0.70 ab=- , or  0.30 ab= . It’s also given that the number c is  60yb greater than a. Therefore, ( ) 60100 1 ca=+ , which is equivalent to  ( ) 1 0.60 ca=+ , or  1.60 ca= . Since 0.30 ab= , substituting 0.30 b for a in the equation 1.60 ca= yields () 1.60 0.30 cb = , or  0.48 cb= . Thus, c is 0.48 times b. Note that .48 \ and 12/25 y Dre examples of ways to enter a correct answer. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 1

41 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2 Math Module 2 (27 questions) QUESTION 1 Choice B is correct. It’s given that there are 20 buttons in a bag and 8 of the buttons are white. If one button from the bag is selected at random, the probability of selecting a white button is the number of white buttons in the bag divided by the total number of buttons in the bag. Therefore, if one button from the bag is selected at random, the probability of selecting a white button is 8 20 Choice A is incorrect. This is the probability of selecting an orange button from the bag. Choice C is incorrect. This is the probability of selecting a brown button from the bag. Choice D is incorrect. This is the probability of selecting a button that isn’t white from the bag. QUESTION 2 Choice B is correct. It’s given that the employee takes 1.5 PLQXWHVWRSUHSDUH DVDQGZLFK0XOWLSO\LQJ  E\WKHQXPEHURIVDQGZLFKHV x\LHOGV  x WKH DPRXQWRIWLP\ HWKHHPSOR\HHVSHQGVSUHSDULQJ xVDQGZLFKHV,\ WoVDOVRJLYHQWKDW WKHHPSOR\HHWDNHV  PLQXWHVWRSUHSDUHDVDODG0\ XOWLSO\LQJ  E\WKHQXPEHU\ RIVDODGV y\LHOGV  y WKHDPRXQW\ RIWLPHWKH\ HPSOR\HHVSHQGVSUHSDULQJ y{VDODGV,WIROORZVWKDWWKHWRWDODPRXQWRIWLPHLQPLQXWHVWKHHPSOR\HHVSHQGV preparing x sandwiches and yVDODGVLV{  xy+ ,WoVJLYHQWKDWWKHHPSOR\HH VSHQGVDWRWDORI{  PLQXWHVSUHSDULQJ xVDQGZLFKHVDQ\ G yVDODGV7KXV\ WKH HTXDWLRQ{    xy+= UHSUHVHQWVWKLVVLWXDWLRQ Choice A is incorrect. This equation represents a situation where it takes the employee 1.9 PLQXWHVUDWKHUWKDQ  PLQXWHVWRSUHSDUHDVDQGZLFKDQG  {PLQXWHVUDWKHUWKDQ  PLQXWHVWRSUHSDUHDVDODG Choice C is incorrect. This equation represents a situation where it takes the employee 1PLQXWHUDWKHU than 1.5 minutes, to prepare a sandwich and 1PLQXWHUDWKHUWKDQ  PLQXWHV WRSUHSDUHDVDODGChoice D is incorrect. This equation represents a situation where it takes the employee 30.7 PLQXWHVUDWKHUWKDQ  PLQXWHVWRSUHSDUHD VDQGZLFKDQG  PLQXWHVUDWKHUWKDQ  PLQXWHVWRSUHSDUHDVDODG

42 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 3 Choice A is correct. It’s given that the ratio of black pens to red pens is 8 to 1. Therefore, there are 1 8DVPDQ\UHGSHQVDVEODFNSHQVLQWKHER[,WoVDOVRJLYHQ that there are 40 black pens in the box. Therefore, the number of red pens is  1 8 of the 40 black pens. Thus, the number of red pens is ( )1 8 40 RU 5 Choice B is incorrect. This is the number of black pens in the box for every red pen. Choice C is incorrect. This is the number of black pens in the box. Choice D is incorrect. This is the number of red pens in the box if the ratio of black pens to red pens is 1 to 8. QUESTION 4 Choice D is correct. Substituting 9 for x in the given equation yields ( ) ( )9 100 9 2 f =+ RU ( )9 902 f = 7KHUHIRUHWKHYDOXHRI ( )fx when 9 x = is 902 . Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of ( )fx ZKHQ{  x = Choice B is incorrect. This is the value of ( )fx ZKHQ{  x = Choice C is incorrect. This is the value of ( )fx ZKHQ{  x =  QUESTION 5 Choice D is correct. It’s given that the length of the whale was 162 cm when it was born and that its length increased an average of 4.8 cm SHUPRQWKIRUWKH first 12 months after it was born. Since xUHSUHVHQWVWKHQXPE\ HURIPRQWKV\ DIWHU WKHZKDOHZDV\ ERUQWKHWRWDOLQFUHDVHLQWKHZKD\ OHoVOHQJWK\ LQ FP LV  WLPHV x or 4.8 x . The length of the whale yLQ FP FDQEHIRXQGE\DGGLQJWKH\ ZKDOHoV OHQJWKDWELUWK FP WRWKHWRWDOLQFUHDVHLQOHQJWK\   FPx 7KHUHIRUHWKH HTXDWLRQWKDW\ EHVWUHSUHVHQWVWKLVVLW\ XDWLRQLV   yx =+  Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. QUESTION 6 The correct answer is 35 ,WoVJLYHQWKDWWKH\ SHULPHWHURIDQLVRVFHOHVWULDQJOH\ LV  LQFKHVDQGWK\ DWHDFKRIWK\ HWZRFRQJUXHQWVLGH\ VKDVDOHQJW\ KRI 24 LQFKHV 7KHSHULPHWHURIDWULD\ QJOHLVWKHV\ XPRIWKHOHQ\ JWKVRILWVW\ KUHHVLGHV7K\ H HTXDWLRQ    x + += FDQEHXVHGWRUHSUHVHQWWKLVVLWXDWLRQZKHUH x is the length, in inches, of the third side. Combining like terms on the left-hand side of this equation yields 48 83 x += 6XEWUDFWLQJ  IURPERWKVLGHVRIWKLVHTXDWLRQ \LHOGV 35 x = 7KHUHIRUHWKHOHQJWKLQLQFKHVRIWKHWKLUGVLGHLV 35  QUESTION 7 The correct answer is 480 {0XOWLSO\LQJERWKVLGHVRIWKHJLYHQHTXDWLRQE\  yields ( ) ( )82 860 x += RU    x += 7KHUHIRUHLI 2 60 x += WKHYDOXHRI   x + is 480 . PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 2

43 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 8 Choice C is correct. It’s given that the population density of Worthington is 290 {SHRSOHSHUVTXDUHPLOHDQG:RUWKLQJWRQKDVDSRSXODWLRQRI   SHRSOH 7KHUHIRUHWKHDUHDRI:RUWKLQJWRQLV ( )1 square mile 290 people 92, 800 people ZKLFKLV HTXLYDOHQWWR  VTXDUHPLOHV  RU 320 VTXDUHPLOHV Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 9 Choice A is correct. The y-intercept of a graph in the xy -plane is the point  ( ), xy on the graph where 0 x =. For the graph shown, at 0 x =WKHFRUUHVSRQGLQJYDOXH of y is 6 -. Therefore, the y-intercept of the graph shown is ( )0, 6 -  Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. QUESTION 10 Choice B is correct. For the graph shown, the x-axis represents time, in seconds, and the y-axis represents the number of candy bars wrapped. The slope of a line in the xy -plane is the change in yIRUHDFK 1XQLWLQFUHDVHLQ x,WIROORZVWKDWWKH VORSHRIWKH\ JUDSKVKRZQUHSUHVHQWVWKHHVWL\ PDWHGQXPEHURI\ FDQG\EDUVWKH PDFKLQHZUDSVZLWKDO\ DEHOSHUVHFRQG7KHVOR\ SH mRIDOLQH\ LQWKH xy-plane can be found using any two points, ( )11, xy and ( )22, xy , on the line and the slope formula 21 21yy xx m - - = 7KHJUDSKVKRZQSDVVHVWKURXJKWKHSRLQWV ( )0, 0 and ( )2, 80 . Substituting these points for  ( )11, xy and ( )22, xy , respectively, in the slope formula yields 80 0 20 m - - = ZKLFKLVHTXLYDOHQWWR  2 m = RU 40 m = 7KHUHIRUHWKHHVWLPDWHG QXPEHURIFDQG\EDUVWKHPDFKLQHZUDSVZLWKDODEHOSHUVHFRQGLV 40  Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 11 Choice B is correct. The sum of the measures of the interior angles of a triangle is 180 GHJUHHV6LQFHWKHWULDQJOHLVDULJKWWULDQJOHLWKDVRQHDQJOHWKDWPHDVXUHV  GHJUHHV7KHUHIRUHWKHVXPRIWKHPHDVXUHVLQGHJUHHVRIWKHUHPDLQLQJWZR angles is 180 90 - , or 90 ,WoVJLYHQWKDWWKHPHDVXUHRIRQHRIWKHDFXWHDQJOHVLQ the triangle is 51 degrees. Therefore, the measure, in degrees, of the other acute angle is 90 51- , or 39  Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect. This is the measure, in degrees, of the acute angle whose measure is given. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 2

44 P S AT   8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 12 Choice B is correct. The mean of a set of data values is the sum of all the data values divided by the number of data values in the set. The sum of the data values shown is 2 9 14 23 32++ + + , or 80 . Since there are 5 data values in the \ set, the mean of the y Gata shown is 805, or 16 . Choice A is incorrect. This is the median, not the mean, of the data shown. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect. This is the maximum, not the mean, of the data shown. QUESTION 13 The correct answer is 12 . The value of ( ) 36f is the value of () fx when 36 x= . Substituting 36 for x in the given equation yields ( )36 6 36 f =+ , which is equivalent to  ()36 6 6 f =+ , or ( ) 36 12f = . Thus, the value of ( ) 36f is 12 . QUESTION 14 The correct answer is 18 . It’s given by the second equation in the system that 3 11y= . Substituting 11 for 3y in the first equation in the system, 3 29 xy += , yields 11 29 x += . Subtracting 11 from both sidesy of this equay Wion yields 18 x= . QUESTION 15 Choice B is correct. It’s given that Rhett drove at an average speed of 35 miles per hour and \ that he drove for r hours. Multiplyin\ g 35 miles per houy U by r hours yields 35 r miles, or thy H distance that Rhett \ drove. It’s also given that Jessiy Fa drove at an average speed of \ 40 miles per houy U and that shy H drove for j hours. Multiplying 40 miles per houy U by j hours yields 40 j miles, or thy H distance that Jessica drove. The total distance, in miles, \ that Rhett any G Jessica drove can be represented by the expression 35 40rj+ . It’s given that the total distance they drove was under 220 miles. Therefore, the inequay Oity 35 40 220 rj+< represents this situation. Choice A is incorrect. This inequality represents a situation in which the total distance Rhett and Jessica drove was over, rather than under, 220 miles. Choice C is incorrect. This inequality represents a situation in which Rhett drove at an average speed of 40 , rather than 35 , miles per \ hour, Jessica drove at an average speed of \ 35 , rather than 40 , miles per \ hour, and the total distance they drove was over, rather than uny Ger, 220 miles. Choice D is incorrect. This inequality represents a situation in which Rhett drove at an average speed of 40 , rather than 35 , miles per hour, and Jessica drove at an average speed of 35 , rather than 40 , miles per hour. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 2

45 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 16 Choice A is correct. It’s given that the equation 42 b cf = UHODWHVWKHSRVLWLYH QXPEHUV bcDQG f'LYLGLQJH\ DFKVLGHRIW\ KHJLYHQHTXDWLRQE\ 42 f \LHOGV 42b f c =RU 42 b f c = 7KXVWKHHTXDWLRQ{ 42b f c = FRUUHFWO\H[SUHVVHV cLQWHUPVRI b and f. Choice B is incorrect. This equation can be rewritten as  42 b cf =+ Choice C is incorrect. This equation can be rewritten as  42 c f b = Choice D is incorrect. This equation can be rewritten as  42 b cf = --  QUESTION 17 Choice D is correct. Let pUHSUHVHQWWKHQXPEH\ URISRXQGVR\ ISRWDWRHVDQGOHW cUHSUHVHQWWKHQXPEH\ URISRXQGVR\ IFHOHU\{WKDW'DYLRERXJKW,WoVJLYHQWKDW SRWDWRHVFRVW  SHUSRXQGDQG\ FHOHU\FRVWV  SHUSRXQG,\ I'DYLR spent $5.34 in total, then the equation 0.69 0.99 5.34 pc+= represents this situation. It’s also given that Davio bought twice as many pounds of celery as pounds of potatoes; therefore, 2 cp = 6XEVWLWXWLQJ 2p for c in the equation 0.69 0.99 5.34 pc+= \LHOGV ( ) 0.69 0.99 2 5.34 pp+= ZKLFKLVHTXLYDOHQWWR    pp+= RU   p= 'LYLGLQJERWKVLGHVRIWKLVHTXDWLRQE\  \LHOGV 2 p =6XEVWLWXWLQJ{ 2IRU{ pLQWKHHTXDWL\ RQ{ 2 cp = \LHOGV{ ( )22 c = RU{ 4 c =7KHUHIRUH'DYLRERXJKW{ 4SRXQGVRIFHOHU\ Choice A is incorrect. This is the number of pounds of potatoes, not the number of pounds of celery, Davio bought. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 18 Choice C is correct. A line of best fit is shown in the scatterplot such that as the value of xLQFUHDVHVWKHYDOXHRI yGHFUHDVHV,WIROORZVWKDWWKH\ VORSHRIWKH OLQHRIEHVW\ ILWVKRZQLVQHJDWLYH7KHVORSH\ RIDOLQHLQ\ WKHxy -plane that passes through the points ( )11, xy and ( )22, xy can be calculated as 21 21yy xx - - 7KHOLQHRIEHVW ILWVKRZQSDVVHVDSSUR[LPDWHO\WKURXJKWKHSRLQWV ( )0, 8 and ( )10, 1 . Substituting ( )0, 8 for ( )11, xy and ( )10, 1 for ( )22, xy in  21 21yy xx - - \LHOGVWKHVORSHRIWKHOLQH being approximately 18 10 0 - - ZKLFKLVHTXLYDOHQWWR 7 10 -RU  - 7KHUHIRUHRIWKH JLYHQFKRLFHV  - LVWKHFORVHVWWRWKHVORSHRIWKLVOLQHRIEHVWILW Choice A is incorrect. The line of best fit shown has a negative slope, not a positive slope. Choice B is incorrect. The line of best fit shown has a negative slope, not a positive slope. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 2

46 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 19 Choice A is correct. It’s given that the equation  0.67 2.6 yx =+ ZKHUH{ 20 110 x ££ JLYHVWKHSUHGLFWHGQXPEHURIODUYDH yLQDFRORQ\RIDQWVLI\  WKHFRORQ\KDV xZRUNHUDQWV,I\ RQHRIWKHVHFRORQLHVKDV  ZRUNHUDQWV WKHSUHGLFWHGQXPEHURI\ ODUYDHLQWKDWFRORQ\FDQEHIRXQGE\VXEVWLWXWLQ\ J  for x in the given equation. Substituting 58 for x in the given equation yields ( ) 0.67 58 2.6 y =+ RU  y = 2IWKHJLYHQFKRLFHV 41 LVFORVHVWWRWKH SUHGLFWHGQXPEHURI\ ODUYDHLQWKHFRORQ\ Choice B is incorrect. This is closest to the predicted number of larvae in a colony with 87 worker ants. Choice C is incorrect. This is closest to the number of worker ants for which the predicted number of larvae in a colony is 58 Choice D is incorrect. This is closest to the predicted number of larvae in a colony with 280 {ZRUNHUDQWV QUESTION 20 The correct answer is 161 )RUDQXPEHU\ WREH \b greater than 115 , it follows that the number is  ( ) ( )100% of 115 40% of 115+ ZKLFKFDQEHZULWWHQDV{ ( ) ( ) 100 40 100 100 115 115 + 7KLVH[SUHVVLRQLVHTXLYDOHQWWR{ ( ) ( )1 115 0.4 115 + RU{ ( ) 1.4 115 ZKLFKLVHTXDOWR 161 7KHUHIRUH 161 is 40% greater than 115 . QUESTION 21 The correct answer is 17 ,IRQHYDOXHLVPXOWL\ SOLHGE\DQXPEHUWKHQWKHR\ WKHU YDOXHPXVWEH\ PXOWLSOLHGE\WKHVDPHQ\ XPEHULQRUGHUWRPDLQWDLQWK\ HVDPHUDWLR ,WoVJLYHQWKDW jLVPXOWLSOLHG\ E\ 17 7KHUHIRUHLQRUGHUWRPDLQWDLQWK\ HVDPHUDWLR kPXVWDOVREHPXOWLSOL\ HGE\ 17  QUESTION 22 Choice D is correct. It’s given that the function ( ) ( ) 65 1.03 x fx= JLYHVWKH SUHGLFWHGYDOXHLQGROODUVRIDFHUWDLQUDUHFRLQ x\HDUVDIWHU,PPDQXHO SXUFKDVHGLW,WIROORZVWKDW ( )fx UHSUHVHQWVWKHSUHGLFWHGYDOXHLQGROODUVRIWKH FRLQ x\HDUVDIWHU,PPDQXHOS\ XUFKDVHGLW6LQFHWKHYDOXHRI ( )8 f LVWKHYDOXH of ( )fx when 8 x =, it follows that “ ( )8 f LVDSSUR[LPDWHO\HTXDOWR  qPHDQVWKDW\ ( )fx LVDSSUR[LPDWHO\HTXDOWR  when 8 x =. Therefore, the best interpretation of the statement “ ( )8 f LVDSSUR[LPDWHO\HTXDOWR  qLQWKLVFRQWH[WLV \HDUV DIWHU,PPDQXHOS\ XUFKDVHGWKHUDUHFRLQLWVSUHGLFWHGYDOXHLVDSSUR[LPDWHO\  {GROODUV Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 2

47 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 23 Choice A is correct. The slope, mRIDOLQH\ LQWKH xy-plane can be found using two points on the line, ( )11, xy DQG{ ( )22, xy DQGWKHVO\ RSHIRUPXOD 21 21yy xx m - - = %DVHGRQ WKHJLYHQWDEOHWKHOLQHUHSUHVHQWLQJWKHUHODWLRQVKLSEHWZHHQ x and y in the xy -plane passes through the points ( ) 6, 184n -+ ( ) 3, 92 n -+ DQG ( )0, n ZKHUH nLVDFRQVWDQW6XEVWLWXWLQ\ JWZRRIWKHVHSRLQWV{ ( ) 3, 92n -+ and ( )0, n , for  ( )11, xy and ( )22, xy , respectively, in the slope formula yields ( ) ( )  03 nn m -+ -- = ZKLFK LVHTXLYDOHQWWR  03 nn m -- + = RU 3 m =- 7KHUHIRUHWKHVORSHRIWKHOLQHWKDW represents this relationship in the xy -plane is 92 3-  Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 24 Choice C is correct. The volume of a right circular cylinder is equal to 2abπ ZKHUH aLVWKHUDGLXVRIDE\ DVHRIWKHF\OLQGHUDQG bLVWKHKHLJKW\ RIWKHF\OLQGHU,WoV JLYHQWKDWWKH\ F\OLQGHUVKRZQKDVDUDGLXVRI r and a height of h. It follows that the volume of the cylinder shown is equal to 2rhπ ,WoVJLYHQWKDWWKHVHFRQGULJKW FLUFXODUF\OLQGHUKDVDUDGLXVRI R and a height of H. It follows that the volume of the second cylinder is equal to 2RHπ &KRLFH&JLYHV 7 Rr = and 8 Hh = . Substituting 7r for R and 8 h for H in the expression that represents the volume of the second cylinder yields ( ) ( ) 2 78rh π RU ( ) ( )2 49 8 rh π ZKLFKLVHTXLYDOHQWWR ( ) 2 392 rhπ RU ( ) 2 392 rh π 7KLVH[SUHVVLRQLVHTXDOWR  WLPHVWKHYROXPHRIWKH F\OLQGHUVKRZQ 2rhπ 7KHUHIRUH 7 Rr = and 8 Hh = could represent the radius R LQWHUPVRI rDQGWKHKH\ LJKW HLQWHUPVRI hRIWKHVHFRQGF\OLQGHU Choice A is incorrect. Substituting 8r for R and 7h for H in the expression that represents the volume of the second cylinder yields ( ) ( ) 2 87 rh π RU ( ) ( )2 64 7 rhπ  ZKLFKLVHTXLYDOHQWWR ( ) 2 448 rh π RU ( ) 2 448 rh π 7KLVH[SUHVVLRQLVHTXDOWR   not 392 , times the volume of the cylinder shown. Choice B is incorrect. Substituting 8 r for R and 49 h for H in the expression that represents the volume of the second cylinder yields ( ) ( ) 2 8 49rhπ RU ( ) ( )2 64 49 rhπ ZKLFKLVHTXLYDOHQWWR ( ) 2 3,136 rhπ RU ( ) 2 3,136 rh π 7KLVH[SUHVVLRQLVHTXDOWR  QRW  WLPHVWKH YROXPHRIWKHF\OLQGHUVKRZQChoice D is incorrect. Substituting 49r for R and 8h for H in the expression that represents the volume of the second cylinder yields ( ) ( ) 2 49 8 rh π RU ( ) ( )2 2, 401 8 rhπ ZKLFKLVHTXLYDOHQWWR ( ) 2 19,208 rhπ RU ( ) 2 19,208 rh π 7KLVH[SUHVVLRQLVHTXDOWR  QRW  WLPHVWKHYROXPHRI WKHF\OLQGHUVKRZQ PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 2

48 PS AT  8/9 PRACTICE TEST #1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS QUESTION 25 Choice B is correct. It’s given that each side of a 30 VLGHGSRO\JRQKDV RQHRIWKUHHOHQJWKV\ ,WoVDOVRJLYHQWKDWWKH\ QXPEHURIVLGH\ VZLWKOHQJWK\  ( ) 8 centimeters cm is 5 times the number of sides n with length 3 cm . Therefore, there are 5n ´ , or 5 n VLGHVZLWK\ OHQJWK FP ,WoVDOVRJLYHQWKDWWKHUHDUH 6{VLGHV with length 4 cm . Therefore, the number of 3 cm FP DQG{ FP sides are n, 6DQG 5n UHVSHFWLYHO\6LQFHWKHUHDUHDWRWDORI 30 VLGHVWKHH\ TXDWLRQ 6 5 30 nn ++ = UHSUHVHQWVWKLVVLWXDWLRQ&RPELQLQJOLNHWHUPVRQWKHOHIWKDQG VLGHRIWKLVHTXDWLRQ\LHOGV 6 6 30n += 7KHUHIRUHWKHHTXDWLRQWKDWPXVWEHWUXH IRUWKHYDOXHRI nLV{ 6 6 30n +=  Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 26 Choice D is correct. It’s given that data set F consists of 55 integers between 170 and 290 and data set G consists of all the integers in data set F as well as the integer 10 . Since the integer 10 LVOHVVWKDQ\ DOOWKHLQWHJHUVLQGDWDVHW)WKH PHDQRIGDWD\ VHW*PXVWEH\ OHVVWKDQWK\ HPHDQRIGDW\ DVHW)7KXVWKH\ PHDQRI GDWD{VHW{)LVQoWOHVVWKDQ\ WKHPHDQRI\ GDWDVHW*:KHQDGDW\ DVHWLVLQDVFHQGLQJ RUGHUWKHPHGLDQ\ LVEHWZHHQWKHWZRPLGGOHYDOXHVZKHQWK\ HUHLVDQHYHQQXPEHU RIYDOXHVDQGWKH\ PHGLDQLVWK\ HPLGGOHYDOXHZKHQWKH\ UHLVDQRGG\ QXPEHURI YDOXHV,WIROORZVWKDWWKH\ PHGLDQRIGDWD\ VHW)LVHLWK\ HUJUHDWHUWKDQRUH\ TXDOWR WKHPHGLDQRI\ GDWDVHW*7KHUHIRUHWKHPHGLDQ\ RIGDWDVHW)LVQoWOHVVWKDQ\ WKH PHGLDQRIGDW\ DVHW*7KXVQHLW\ KHUWKHPHDQ\ QRUWKHPHGLD\ QPXVWEHOHV\ VIRU GDWD{VHW)WKDQIRUGDWDVHW* Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. QUESTION 27 The correct answer is 66 ,WoVJLYHQWKDWWKH\ ULJKWFLUFXODUFRQHKDVDKH\ LJKWRI 22 {FHQWLPHWHUV ( )cm DQGDEDVHZLWKDGLDPHWHURI FP 6LQFHWKHGLDPHWHURI WKHEDVHRIWKHFRQHLV FP WKHUDGLXVRIWKHEDVHLV FP 7KHYROXPH V 3 in cm , of a right circular cone can be found using the formula 2 1 3 V rh π = ZKHUH h is the height,  in cm DQG rLVWKHUDGLXV{ LQFP {RIWKHEDVHRIWKHFRQH6XEVWLWXWLQ\ J 22 for h and 3 for r in this formula yields ( ) ( ) 2 1 3 3 22 V π = RU 66 V π = 7KHUHIRUHWKH YROXPHRIWKHFRQHLV 3 66 cm π ,WoVJLYHQWKDWWKHYROXPHRIWKHFRQHLV 3 cm nπ  7KHUHIRUHWKHYDOXHRI n is 66 . PSAT 8/9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS ? MATH: MODULE 2